Đề chính thức chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2014-2015 - Sở GD&ĐT Ninh Bình (Có hướng dẫn chấm)

 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS
 NINH BÌNH Năm học 2014-2015
 Môn: Tiếng Anh
 Ngày thi: 04/3/2015
 ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút 
 Đề thi gồm 4 phần, 10 trang
 Điểm bài thi Họ và tên, chữ ký của giám khảo Số phách 
 (Do Chủ tịch Hội 
 đồng chấm thi ghi)
 Bằng số: Giám khảo 1: 
 ................................ ...........................................................
 Bằng chữ: 
 ................................. Giám khảo 2: 
 ..........................................................
 (Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi này)
 PART A: LISTENING (3.0 points)
Hướng dẫn thí sinh: 
 - Phần thi nghe gồm 3 bài. Thí sinh được nghe 2 lần liên tiếp. Nghe lần lượt 2 lần bài I, 
sau đó 2 lần bài II, rồi 2 lần bài III. Giữa mỗi lần nghe có 1 khoảng 15 giây để chuyển. 
 - Thí sinh đọc kĩ yêu cầu của từng bài trước khi nghe .
I . You will hear a conversation between a woman, Lucy, and a man, Mike, about a new 
burger restaurant called “ Burger Fest ” in their town. Decide whether each of the 
following statements is true or false. Write "true", "false" on your answer sheet. ( 1.0 
point )
 Statements True/ false
 1. Mike ate a chicken burger with balcon and fries at Burger Fest 
 2. Lucy only eats at fast food restaurants on special occasions
 3. Lucy thinks there’s nothing wrong with eating fast food occasionally
 4. Burger Fest does nothing to educate people about healthy eating
 5. Lucy thinks that only healthy food should be available in restaurants
II. Listen and fill in each blank with ONE word/ number (1.0point)
 Last week, China’s largest micro blogging service announced (6) 
policies that will restrict what its users can place online. Sina Weibo is a service which lets 
users publish texts and (7) . in real time. There are about (8) .million 
Sina Weibo users. The service has been under increasing pressure from the Chinese 
government to better censor its content. Last week, Sina Weibo announced new policies. It 
says support evil teachings or destroy the security of (9) . Many 
web users have criticized the new policies. Chad Catacchio is an American-based 
(10) who follows technology news out of China. He agrees with others 
who say similar policies have been in place all along. This new policies are set to take effect 
on May (11) 
Also in (12) .., the government announced new rules requiring micro blog users 
to register their accounts using their real names. China has more than 
 1 (13) .. million Internet users. The country has taken great steps to control 
(14) .. It has one of the largest and most developed censorship systems in 
the world. Websites like Twitter, (15) ..,facebook are banned in the country.
Your answer:
 6 11
 7 12
 8 13
 9 14
 10. 15
III. Listen and answer the questions (1.0point)
16. What time was “The Asian Games Report” programme?
 .
17. How many gold medals have the Japanese athletes won in the first three days?
 .. .
18. How many times has Lee Bong-ju competed in the long jump?
 .. .
19. What was the last sports event mentioned in the report?
 .. .
20. How was Vichai after he finished his performance?
 . .
 PART B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (4.0 points)
 I. Choose the best word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1 point)
 21. All the sentences below use “the”, which is the correct one?
 A. Can you pass the sugar please? B. The crime is a problem in many big cities.
 C. The apples are good for you. D. I love the skiing.
 22. Which of the following is the strongest advice?
 A. You should get a hair-cut. B. If I were you, I’d get a hair-cut.
 C. You ought to get a hair-cut. D. You really must get a hair-cut.
 23. I am sleepy today. I wish I________ Bod to the airport late last night. 
 A. weren’t taking C. hadn’t had to take
 B. didn’t have to take D. didn’t take
 24. ________ you to be offered that job, would you have to move to another country?
 A. If B. Should C. Were D. Had
 25. Minh! Don’t come late again, .?
 A. will you B. will he C. won’t you D. won’t he
 26. .the furniture .arrived yet.
 A. None ..has B. None .have C. None of .has D. None of .have
 27. Students have almost no chance of taking .any of their own hobbies.
 A. up B. on C. of D. with
 28. If she let this chance slip, she it for the rest of her life.
 A. would regret B. regrets C. will regret D. would have regretted
 29. Peter and I have much pleasure ..accepting the invitation to Mary’s birthday 
 party.
 A. on B. about C. for D. in
 30. I think this book will be bought by people ..in Asian history.
 A. who they are interested B. are interested
 C. interested D. they are interested
 2 Your answer:
 21 22 23 24 25
 26 27 28 29 30
 II. Error Identification: Find in each of the sentences a mistake and then correct it. 
 (1.0 point)
 31. Every city in the United States has traffic problems because the amount of cars on 
 A B C
 American streets and highway is increasing every year. 
 D
 32. Minh was extreme pleased that he got mark 10 for the final test in Maths.
 A B C D
 33. I’ll make the shopping on my way home this evening.
 A B C D
 34. Without the use of the sight, hear, taste or smell, we cannot perceive anything.
 A B C D
 35. Many discoveries have made in the fields of chemistry and physics.
 A B C D
Your answer:
 Mistake Correction
 31
 32
 33
 34
 35
 III. Give the correct form of the words in bracket (1.0 point).
 36. We always have a spare room in case visitors arrive_______________ (expect).
 37. Some visitors to our islands find our customs very _______________ (amuse).
 38. A lot of toys encourage children’s ________________ (imagine).
 39. Burning coal is an _______________ (economy) way of heating a house. Gas is much 
 cheaper.
 40. You mustn’t leave your luggage ______________ (attend) for every moment on the 
 train. 
 41. After the earthquake, very few people were found to be_______________ (live).
 42. I’m sorry about the mistakes, I ___________the instructions you gave me. (understand)
 43. Traveling in a plane for the first time was ______________experience. (memory)
 44. There are ______________ways of doing this exercise. (vary)
 45. I was kept______________last night by the noise. (wake)
Your answer:
 36 37 38 39 40
 41 42 43 44 45
 IV.Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets (1.0 point)
 46. No sooner the announcement _______________ (make) than everyone started 
 complaining. 
 47. There is no point in trying to get Tim _______________ (lend) you his car. 
 48. The children were frightened because the lights suddenly had gone out and they 
 _______________ (sit) in the dark. 
 3 49. _______________ (Come) into the room he saw Mary where he had left her. 
 50. Don’t you think it’s time you______________(take) a holiday?
 51. This is the first time I (read) ______________a novel 52. _____________(write) by an 
 America novelist.
 53. He wore a false bear___________ (avoid) 54. _____________(recognize).
 55. By next December, my parents _____________(marry) for 52 years.
Your answer:
 46 47 48 49 50
 51 52 53 54 55
 PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (5.0 points)
 I. Read the passage and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write 
your answer in the spaces provided. There is an example at the beginning (0). (2 points)
 Malaysia Airlines Flight 370 (MH370/MAS370) was (0) a scheduled international 
passenger flight from Kuala Lumpur to Beijing that lost (56) _______________ with air traffic 
control on 8 March 2014 at 01:20 MYT, less than an hour after takeoff. At 07:24, Malaysia 
Airlines (MAS) reported the flight missing. The aircraft, a Boeing 777-200ER, was carrying 12 
Malaysian crew members and 227 (57) _______________ from 14 nations. There has been no 
confirmation of any flight debris and no crash site has been found. 
 A multinational search and rescue effort, later reported as the largest and most 
expensive in history, began in the Gulf of Thailand and the East Sea. Within a few days, the 
search was extended (58) _______________ the Strait of Malacca and Andaman Sea. On 15 
March, (59) _______________ on military radar data and radio "pings" between the aircraft 
and an Inmarsat satellite, investigators concluded that the aircraft had diverted from its 
intended course and headed west across the Malay Peninsula, then continued on a northern or 
southern track (60) _______________ around seven hours. The search in the East Sea was 
abandoned. Three days later, the Australian Maritime Safety Authority began searching the 
southern part of the Indian Ocean.
 On 24 March, the Malaysian government confirmed independent analyses by the 
British Air Accidents Investigation Branch (AAIB) and Inmarsat, and announced that search 
efforts would be (61) __________________ on the Australian-led area. In the first two weeks 
of April, aircrafts and ships deployed equipment to listen for signals from the underwater 
locator beacons attached to the aircraft's "(62) _______________ box" flight recorders. Four 
unconfirmed signals were detected between 6 (63) _______________ 8 April but after that 
time the batteries of the beacons (64)____________ believed to have become exhausted. The 
search continued in the area of the signals, using a robotic submarine, until 28 May, without 
evidence of debris (65)_______________ found.
 (Source: From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia)
Your answer:
 56 57 58 59 60
 61 62 63 64 65
 II. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question (1 point)
 A most of us know a little about how babies learn to talk. From the time infants are born, 
they hear language because their parents talk to them all the time. Between the ages of seven 
and ten months, most infants begin to make sounds. They repeat the same sounds over and 
 4 over again. This is called babbling. When babies babble, they are practicing their language.
 What happens, though, to children who cannot hear? How do deaf children learn to 
communicate? Recently, doctors have learned that deaf babies babble with their hands. Laura 
Ann Petitto, a psychologist, observed three hearing infants with English-speaking parents and 
two deaf infants with deaf parents using American Sign Language (ASL) to communicate. Dr. 
Petitto studied the babies three times: at 10, 12, and 14 months. During this time, children 
really begin to develop their language skills.
 After watching and videotaping the children for several hundred hours, the psychologist and 
her assistants made many important observations. For example, they saw that the hearing 
children made varied motions with their hands. However, there appeared to be no pattern to 
these motions. The deaf babies also made different movements with their hands, but these 
movements were more consistent and deliberate. The deaf babies seemed to make the same 
hand movements over and over again. During the four-month period, the deaf babies' hand 
motions started to resemble some basic hand-shapes used in ASL. The children also seemed to 
prefer certain hand-shapes.
 Hearing infants start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables together to 
sound like real sentences and questions. Apparently, deaf babies follow this same pattern, too. 
First, they repeat simple hand-shapes. Next, they form some simple hand signs and use these 
movements together to resemble ASL sentences.
 Linguists believe that our ability for language is innate. In other words, humans are born 
with the capacity for language: It does not matter if we are physically able to speak or not. 
Language can be expressed in different ways - for instance, by speech or by sign. Dr. Petitto 
believes this theory and wants to prove it. She plans to study hearing children who have one 
deaf parent and one hearing parent. She wants to see what happens when babies have the 
opportunity to learn both sign language and speech. Does the human brain prefer speech? 
Some of these studies of hearing babies who have one deaf parent and one hearing parent show 
that the babies babble equally with their hands and their voices. They also produce their first 
words, both spoken and signed, at about the same time. More studies in the future may prove 
that the sign system of the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech.
 Adapted from “Issues for Today” by Lorraine C. Smith and Nancy Nici Mare
66: According to paragraph 1, babies begin to babble ______.
 A. at their first moment after birth B. at their first experience of language
 C. when they are more than 6 months old D. when they first hear their parents talk to 
 them
67: The phrase “the babies” in paragraph 2 refers to ______ in the study.
 A. the hearing infants B. the deaf infants
 C. the hearing and deaf infants D. the disabled infants
68: The writer mentions “American Sign Language (ASL)” in paragraph 2 as a language 
______.
 A. used by the deaf to communicate B. especially formed by infants
 C. used among psychologists D. widely used by American children
69: The word “resemble” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
 A. making initial movements B. studying funny movements
 C. creating strange movements D. producing similar movements
70: It is stated in paragraph 3 that both the deaf and the hearing children made movements with 
their hands, but ______.
 A.only the hearing children made different movements 
 B.the deaf children made less consistent hand movements 
 C.the hearing children only repeated the same hand motions 
 5 D.only the deaf children repeated the same hand motions 
71 : According to paragraph 4, hearing infants learn to talk first by ______.
 A. hand-shapes B. babbling C. hand motions D. eye movements
72: The word “real” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
 A. meaningful B. formal C. general D. original
73: It is mentioned in the last paragraph that Dr. Petitto plans to study ______.
 A.what happens when babies have the opportunity to learn both speech and sign language 
 B.whether all children speak and make motions with their hands at the same time 
 C.the assumption that the human brain prefers sign language to speech 
 D.whether the sign system of the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech 
74: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the last paragraph?
 A.The human brain prefers speech. 
 B.Humans are innately able for language. 
 C.Babies produce spoken words before signed ones. 
 D.Language cannot be expressed in different ways. 
75: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
 A. Education for Deaf Children B. How do Children Master Language?
 C. Language: Is It Always Spoken? D. American Sign Language
Your answer:
 66 67 68 69 70
 71 72 73 74 75
 III. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. 
 (1.0point) 
 No More Classes
 The use of computers has meant students can study language programmes (76) ________ 
their own speed when and for how long they want and no need to worry about the teacher 
having a favourite or doing (77)_________ another boring lesson. What's more, in the virtual 
classrooms of the future the student will (78) _________ on their headset, and be transported 
into an imaginary school, choose their class, take the books they need off the shelf and (79) 
________ conversations with other computerised students. They might (80) ________ choose 
to pay a visit to the supermarket or the train station, the bank or the restaurant. At the (81) 
________ of a button they would be transported to (82) ________ realistic settings where they 
could practice their English, maybe getting a hand from a virtual English companion. All this 
perhaps, at the computer, from the comfort of their home: no (83) __________ to catch the bus 
to college, or a plane to England. Exciting? Certainly, and an interesting alternative to 
traditional classroom lessons. But would it ever (84) __________ the classroom? Hopefully 
not. Surely the need to relate to real people talking about real issues and generally learning a 
little more about others will always lead language learners to (85) _______ at least a little of 
their time with real people.
 76 A. with B. for C. at D. in
 77 A. still B. for C. yet D. already
 78 A. place B. put C. set D. get
 79 A. take B. do C. catch D. hold
 6 80 A. although B. preferably C. instead D. contrary
 81 A. force B. hit C. depress D. push 
 82 A. so B. such C. like D. alike
 83 A. role B. duty C. obligation D. need
 84 A. replace B. restore C. succeed D. recover
 85. A. spend B. make C. have D. do
Your answer:
 76 77 78 79 80
 81 82 83 84 85
IV. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. (1 point)
 The Beatles
 In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. 
Since then, there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is 
perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at the time. They were 
four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started 
by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these 
songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really 
popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great 
success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and 
singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record 
was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because 
it had become too dangerous for them – their fan were so excited that they surrounded them 
and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as 
famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world, many people can sing 
part of a Beatles song if you ask them.
86.The passage is mainly about 
 A. how the Beatles became more successful than other groups
 B. why the Beatles split up after 7 years.
 C. The Beatles’ fame and success.
 D. many people’s ability to sing a Beatles song.
87. The four boys of the Beatles
 A. came from the same family B. came from a town in the north of England
 C. were at the same age D. received good traning in music
88. The word ‘ sensational’ is closest in meaning to
 A. notorious B. bad C. shocking D. popular
89. The first songs of the Beatles were
 A. written by themselves B. broadcard on the radio
 C. paid a lot of money D. written by black Americans
90. What is NOT true about the Beatles
 A. The members had no training in music
 7 B. They had a long stable career
 C. They became famous when they wrote their own songs.
 D. They changed pop music
91. The Beatles stopped their live performances because 
 A. They had earned enough money
 B. They did not want to work with each other 
 C. They spent more time writing their won songs
 D, They were afraid of being hurt by fans
92. The year 1970 was the time when
 A. they split up B. they changed pop music
 C. they started their career D. they stopped singing live
93. What the fans of the Beatles often did was
 A. sing together with them B. take their clothes as souvenirs
 C. ask them to write more songs D. ask them why they would separate
94. Some songs of the Beatles now
 A. are still famous as they used to be B. became too old to sing
 C. are sung by crazy fans D. are the most famous
95. The tone of the passage is that of
 A. admiration B. criticism C. neutral D. sarcasm
Your answer:
 86 87 88 89 90
 91 92 93 94 95
 PART D: WRITING (6.0 points)
 I. Rewrite the sentences using the beginning words (2. 5 points)
 96. I don’t really want to visit the museum. 
 I’d rather ............................................................................................................................ 
 97. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport. 
 He regretted........................................................................................................................
 98. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their 
 second child.
 Only when ...............................................
 99. There was no need for you to have gone to all that trouble.
 You.....................................................................................................................................
 100. I cannot believe that she was the winner. 
 I find it.................................................................................................................................
 101. You should review your lessons for the exam.
 8 It’s time .
 102. Although Jane took a taxi, she still arrived late for the interview.
 In spite of .
 103. The magazine is published everyweek.
 The magazine comes ..
 104. Her success went beyond her expectation.
 Never ..
 105. We have no seats left for the concert on December 24th 
 All the seats 
 II. Rewrite the sentences using cues given (1.5 points)
 106.We won’t get to the airport in less than 20 minutes. (LEAST)
 ............................................................................................................................................
 107.The boss was annoyed because his secretary came to work late. (OBJECTED)
 ............................................................................................................................................
 108.We didn’t go there that stormy weekend in case we couldn’t get back (FEAR)
 .........................................................................................................................................
 109.The demand for tickets was so great that people queued day and night. (SUCH)
 ..........................................................................................................................................
 110.Are children keen on sports activities? (TAKING)
 ............................................................................................................................................
 111. I’ll be home late. (UNTIL)
 ..
 III. Write a paragraph (about 100 words) on the advantages or disadvantages of 
 fastfood (2.0points)
 9 
 .. 
 .
 .
 .. 
 .
 - The end -
 10