Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 12 cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh (Mã đề 135) - Năm học 2019-2020 - Sở GD&ĐT Ninh Bình (Có đáp án)

SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC: 2019 - 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 06/12/2019
(Thời gian: 180 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề thi gồm 07 trang
Mã đề thi: 135
Họ và tên thí sinh:....................................................... 	Số báo danh:.............................................
Họ và tên, chữ ký: Giám thị số 1:........................................................................................................
 Giám thị số 2:........................................................................................................
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (14,0 points) - THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI VÀO PHIẾU TRẢ LỜI TRẮC NGHIỆM.
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Part I. You are going to hear some announcements. Choose the correct answer marked A, B, C or D for each question below.
1. What should be returned to the session chair people?
 	A. discussion handouts.	B. tape recorders. 	
 	C. discussion records	.	D. section recorders.
2. By what time does the speaker want people to gather to take the 3:30 buses?
 	A. 2:30	B. 3:15	C. 3:30	D. 3:25
3. Who is not asked to collect reprints from the conference desk?
 	A. Professor Hurst	B. Professor Cole	
 	C. Professor Malnachurk	D. Professor Olsen
4. Where is Professor Olsen from?
 	A. The Leeds University	B. Bangkok
 	C. London	D. The sixth Annual Convention of EFL 
Part II. Listen to a conversation on a university campus and choose the correct answer marked A, B, C or D for each question below.
5. What is the woman’s status at the university?
 	A. She is a senior.	B. She is a junior.
 	C. She’s a transfer student.	D. She’s a graduate student. 
6. What is the man’s status at the university?
 	A. He is a senior.	B. He is a tutor.
 	C. He’s a transfer student.	D. He’s a graduate student. 
7. How many total courses must a student take for a literature major?
 	A. Three	B. Five	C. Eight	D. Ten
8. The man will probably take his elective courses in which area?
 	A. American literature 	B. World literature
 	C. Literary analysis	D. Surveying
Part III. Listen to a talk by a student advisor on campus and choose the best answer marked A, B, C or D for each question below. 
9. What is the primary topic of the talk?	
A. How to get a professor’s signature.	B. The procedure for dropping courses.
C. When to come and see the advisor.	D. The effect of officially dropping a course.
10. When can a student officially drop a course?
A. Any time, if the professor is willing to sign.	B. Only on the day of the talk.
C. During the first 3 weeks of the semester.	D. Up to 3 weeks before the end of the semester.
11. How many signatures are necessary to drop a course?
	A. None	B. One	C. Two	D. Three
12. What happens if a student stops attending a course without officially dropping it?
A. The student fails the course.
B. The course is removed from the student’s schedule.
C. The student receives a warning.
D. The student needs to get the advisor’s signature.
LANGUAGE FOCUS AND SKILLS 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each of the following questions.
13.	A. scholarship	B. chaos	C. chalk	D. chorus
14.	A. tomb	B. comb	C. dome	D. devote
15. 	A. picked	B. wicked	C. licked	D. ticked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
16. 	A. emphasis	B. generate	C. different	D. director
17. 	A. community	B. information	C. traditional	D. experience
18. 	A. geophysical	B. hydroelectric	C. humanitarian	D. telecommuting
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
19. Joanne has only one eye, she lost _____ 3 years ago after falling on some broken glass.
A. other	B. the other	C. another one	D. other ones
20. The concert didn’t come _____ our expectations.
	A. up to	B. up against	C. round	D. up with
21. On the battle field _____.
A. lay the tanks	B. did the tanks lie	C. lied the tanks	D. the tanks lay
22. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is _____.
 	A. as dry as rice	B. as dry as a tile 	C. as dry as a bone 	D. as dry as wood
23. _____ at 2 a.m, he was thought to be the suspect.
 	A. seeing and living	B. seen and left	C. seen leaving	D. to be seen living
24. The in-depth new bulleting is aimed _____ a middle aged, professional audience. 
A. for                      	B. to	C. at            	D. in 
25. Conservationist are worried that many potentially valuable _____ of plant and animals are threatened with extinction.
	A. examples	B. variations	C. species	D. brands
26. The evidence that carbon dioxide levels are rising is _____.
A. inevitable	B. unavoidable	C. indelible	D. undeniable
27. I have given up trying to make my sister see the sense, and now I am _____ to the fact that she is going to marry Jason.
A. adapted	B. resigned	C. adjusted	D. accepted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
28. - “Can I carry the suitcases into the room for you?” 	- “_____”	
A. Yes, you can.	B. No, you can’t.
C. You can’t, I think.	D. Can you? That’s very kind.
29. - “_____” 	- “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
D. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
30. - “_____” 	- “Thanks, I will.”
A. Wish you a happy journey.	B. Give my best wishes to your parents.
C. Thank you for your help.	D. You got the first prize. Congratulations!
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each the following questions.
31. The two bombs exploded simultaneously. 
	A. accidently	B. all of a sudden	C. violently 	D. at the same time
32. They have modern notions about raising children. 
	A. standards	B. rules	C. opinions	D. plans
33. She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students. 
	A. tactful 	B. outspoken	C. firm	D. strict
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each the following questions.
34. Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were apples and oranges.
A. containing too many technical details	B. very similar
C. completely different	D. very complicated
35. I have a vague recollection of meeting him when I was a child.
A. clear	B. indistinct	C. imprecise	D. ill-defined
36. This work is woefully inadequate you have to do it again.
A. nonexistent	B. sufficient	C. rich	D. useful
Read the following passage and choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
TIME OFF IN MEXICO
Mexico is a country of contrasts: The stunning beauty of its beaches and jungle against the endlessly fascinating capital. Mexico city is polluted and overcrowded on the one hand but also alive with art and music on the other. The buses play (37) _____ music continuously and the local bands play in the main square at night. In the market during the day, you will (38) _____ across beautiful local crafts at remarkably low (39) _____. A trip to the cinema or on the underground during the rush (40) _____ are both unforgettable experiences. Most entertainment centres in the city are built for the masses, so sitting in the cinema is like being a huge football (41) _____. Away from the capital, many year-round resorts have (42) _____ up along the coasts. Hotels line the beach, most with (43) _____ swimming pools, and there are facilities for (44) _____ part in most water sports. Inland, the scenery is breathtaking and the wildlife is amazing. The butterflies are the size of your hand and the (45) _____ colours of the birds will remain in your (46) _____ long after you have returned home. To sum up, if you have the opportunity to spend time in Mexico, take it! 
37. 	A. habitual 	B. customary 	C. historical 	D. traditional 
38. 	A. take 	B. bring 	C. come 	D. go 
39. 	A. costs 	B. fees 	C. fares 	D. prices
40. 	A. time 	B. hour 	C. period 	D. stage 
41. 	A. park 	B. court 	C. pitch 	D. ground 
42. 	A. sprung 	B. jumped 	C. risen 	D. mounted 
43. 	A. peculiar 	B. particular 	C. private 	D. personal 
44. 	A. playing 	B. making 	C. doing 	D. taking 
45. 	A. brilliant 	B. polished 	C. shiny 	D. reflective
46. 	A. souvenir 	B. remembrance 	C. memory 	D. reminder 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Line	 
(5)	
(10)
(15)
(20)	
(25)
(30) 
The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the Earth - is a vast frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted, until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth's surface, the deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the National Science Foundation's Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean's surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor.
The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger's core sample have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger's voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the world's past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change - information that may be used to predict future climates.
47. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Marine life deep in the ocean.
B. The Earth's climate millions of years ago.
 	C. The first detailed study of the bottom of the ocean.
D. Geologists' predictions for the future environment of the Earth.
48. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a "frontier" in line 2 because it _____.
A. is not a popular area for scientific research.
B. contains a wide variety of life forms.
C. attracts courageous explorers.
D. is an unknown territory.
49. The word "inaccessible" in line 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. unrecognizable	B. unreachable	C. unusable	 	D. unsafe
50. The author mentions “outer space” in line 7 because _____.
 	A. the Earth's climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space
 	B. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment.
C. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor.
 	D. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in 
	ocean exploration.
51. Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?
 	A. It is a type of submarine.	 	B. It is an ongoing project.
 	C. It has gone on over 100 voyages. 	D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.
52. The word "extracting" in line 13 is closest in meaning to _____.
 	A. breaking	 	B. locating	C. removing	 	D. analyzing
53. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was _____.
 	A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas.
 	B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom.
 	C. composed of geologists from all over the world.
 	D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry.
54. The word "strength" in line 20 is closest in meaning to _____.
 	A. basis	B. purpose	 	C. discovery	 	 D. endurance
55. The word "they" in line 26 refers to _____. 
 	A. years	 	B. climates	 	C. sediments	 	 D. cores
56. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?
 	A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth's appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
 	B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.
 	C. Information was revealed about the Earth's past climatic changes.
 	D. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.
SECTION B: WRITTEN TEST (6,0 points) - THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI VÀO TỜ GIẤY THI VÀ PHẢI VIẾT ĐÚNG THỨ TỰ CÁC ĐÁP ÁN.
I. Give the correct form of word in bold type at the end of each sentence to complete it. 
1. Do you ever suffer from _____? (bore)
2. Are there any _____ rivers left in the world? (pollute)
3. This new film is _____ good. (except)
4. _____ children will not be allowed to cross busy roads. (accompany)
5. You can leave the money with him as he’s totally _____. (trust)
6. Please _____ our letter of the 25th. We have not had a reply. (know)
7. Eating fish and lots of vegetables greatly increases your life _____. (expect)
8. The evening was _____ spent playing and talking. (enjoy)
9. The bank robbers were sentenced to twelve years of _____. (prison)
10. She told everyone that she worked for a large company, but the company is _____. (exist)
II. Give the correct form or tense of each bracketed verb to complete each sentence. 
11. I didn’t do the test well. I (prepare) _____ it very carefully at home.
12. It is imperative that the letter (send) _____ at once.
13. (Lose) _____ in a strange town is not a pleasant experience at all.
14. I don’t mind her (appoint) _____ above me.
15. Sarah looked tired because she (exercise) _____ all morning.
III. Each of the following sentences contains a mistake. Write the mistake in the paper test and give correction. 
Example:
0. The rapid growth of the world's population over the past 100 years have led to a great demand 
	 A	 B	 C
in housing.
 D
0. C: have ® has
16. If I knew you were coming, I would have met you at the airport. 
 A	 B 	 C	 D
17. After the critics see the two plays, they will, as a result of their experience and background, 
 A	 B
judge which is the most effective and moving.
	 C	 D
18. The Nobel Prize winning candidate, together with his wife and children, are staying in Sweden
	 A	 B	 C
after the presentation.
 D
19. Marie asked Sandra whether she knew the post office had been at strike for the past week.
 A	 B	 C	 D
20. In my judgment, I think Hem is the best physicist among the scientists of the SEA region.
	 A	 B	 C	 D
IV. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to best complete the passage. 
Today, more and more women are actively participating in (21) _____ activities both in urban and rural areas. Specifically, they have shined brightly in even many fields commonly (22) _____ as the man's areas such as business, scientific research and social management. In some areas, women (23) _____ show more overwhelming power than men. The image of contemporary Vietnamese women with creativeness, dynamism, success has become popular in Vietnam's society. The fact reveals that the gender (24) _____ has been remarkably narrowed and women enjoy many more opportunities to (25) _____ their social careers and obtain success, contributing (26) _____ national socio-economic development. According to Ms. Le Thi Quy, Director of the Gender and Development Research Centre under the University of Social Sciences and Humanities, Hanoi National University, gender equity in Vietnam has (27) _____ a high level over the past decade. The rate of Vietnamese (28) _____ becoming National Assembly members from the 9th term to the 11th term increased 8.7%, bringing the proportion of Vietnamese women in authority to 27.3%, the highest rate in Southeast Asia. There is no big gap in the level of literacy and schooling between men and women. Women (29) _____ for about 37% of university and college (30) _____, 19.9% of doctoral degree holders and 6.7% of professors and associate professors.
V. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the original sentence.
31. They don’t like it when people treat them like second-class citizens.
They resent .
32. Speaking for my classmates, I would like to thank you.
On 
33. You can only really master a language if you use it regularly.
Only by 
34. I don't intend to apologize to either of them.
I have no .
35. Our friendly match will probably be cancelled.
In .
36. People say that the driver was listening to his walkman at the time of the crash.
The driver ...
37. I was amazed by the efforts he made.
What 
38. Regarding payment, most major credit cards are acceptable.
As far as ..
39. You may get wet on the way, so take an umbrella.
In .
40. As far as I know, there is no reason for him to be so sad.
To the ..
VI. Rewrite each sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given on the right. Do not change the form of the word given.
41. The number of people out of work has been going down little by little. (gradual)
→..........................................................................................................................................................
42. I tried to talk to Jack about the problem but he was too busy. (word)
→..........................................................................................................................................................
43. I don’t believe in anything that he says. (whatever)
→..........................................................................................................................................................
44. Their chances of success are small. (unlikely)
→..........................................................................................................................................................
45. All are eligible for the contest. There is no discrimination of race and sex. (regardless) 
→..........................................................................................................................................................
VII. Write a paragraph of about 200 words to express your agreement or disagreement with the statement: “Modern technology makes it easier for students to learn well.” (1,5 point)
.
.
.
.
.
THE END