Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 12 THPT môn Tiếng Anh (Lần 2) - Năm học 2013-2014 - Sở GD&ĐT Ninh Bình (Có đáp án)

 SỞ GD - ĐT NINH BÌNH	 	 ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 THPT 
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC 
	 Lần thi thứ 2 - Năm học 2013 - 2014 	 Môn: Tiếng Anh 
 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
 	 Đề thi gồm 4 phần, 7 trang	 
Điểm bài thi
Họ và tên, chữ ký của giám khảo
Số phách 
(Do Chủ tịch Hội đồng chấm thi ghi)
Bằng số: ............................
Bằng chữ: ..........................
Giám khảo 1: ...............................................
Giám khảo 2: ...............................................
(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi này)
PART I: LISTENING. (2,0 POINTS)
Thí sinh được nghe 2 lần. Nghe lần lượt 2 lần bài I, sau đó nghe 2 lần bài II. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.	
I. Listen to a talk and answer the questions. (1,0 point)
	Example: What is the name of the man?
	 - Edward/He is Edward. 
1. What was Hollywood at the beginning of 20th century?
2. Why couldn’t the director finish the movie in Chicago?
3. What did the director do when he couldn’t finish the movie in Chicago?
4. What place was the perfect place for making movies?
5. What did his company do the next year?
II. Listen and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1.0 point)
 	The ..(6) thirty years were Hollywood’s greatest years. Thousands of movies were made, most by a few large and ..(7) studios. Directors, actors and ..(8) worked for these studios. They made some movies that today are ..(9) great art.
Hollywood, the area in Los Angeles, also reached its ..(10) point in these years. Many famous and glamorous movie stars, like Bette David and Clark Gable, lived in Hollywood.
Your answers: 
6. 
7. 
8. 
9.
10. 
PART II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR. (8,0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
11. His new appointment takes . from the beginning of the next month. 
A. place 	B. effect 	C. post 	D. possession 
12. A glass of wine now and they won’t .you any harm.
A. make	B. do	C. take	D. give
13. Mr. John has . painting since he retired. 
A. taken up 	B. taken off 	C. taken over 	D. taken in 
14. He doesn’t . his fellow-workers and there are often disagreements between them. 
A. get on with 	B. take to 	C. put up with 	D. go on with
15. - "Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti, or something different?" - "." 
 	A. I'm afraid not.	B. Yes, please.	C. Never mind.	D. Anything will do. 
16. The concert didn't come . our expectations.
 	A. up with	B. up against	C. up to	D. round
17. He suddenly saw Sue .the room. He pushed his way .the crowd of people to get to her.
	A. across/through	 B. over/through	 C. over/along	D. across/across
18. My cousin obviously won't ... much of an impression on you if you can’t remember meeting her.
	A. take	B. do 	C. make 	D. build
19. The . at the football match cheered their team on. 
A. audience 	B. viewers 	C. onlookers 	D. spectators
20. . the finish line first, the runner gave up.
A. Having failed to reach	C. He failed to reach
B. Having failed reaching	D. That he failed reaching
Your answers: 
11. 
12. 
13. 
14.
15. 
16.
17.
18.
19.
20. 
II. Give the correct form/tense of the verbs in brackets. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1,0 point)
21. Athletes  (train) well before they were sent to the games.
22. Since then, people  (consider) Independence Day a great holiday.
23. A number of flights  (cancel) yesterday morning because of the bad weather.
24. The girl  (sit) next to me is the best student in my class.
25. I hope you  (come) with us next summer holidays.
21. 
22. 
23. 
24. 
25. 
III. Give the correct form of each word in brackets to complete each of the sentences below. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
26. He had the  habit of borrowing books and then forgetting to return them. 	(annoy)
27. Recently healthy foods have increased in  	(popular)
28. His boss told him off because he had behaved 	(responsible)
29. There is no to draw up an agreement at this stage.	(necessary)
30. The has caused many so-called man-made disasters.	(forest)
31. Third time lucky! After two  attempts, Mark’s finally passed his driving test. 	(success)
32. I am afraid I and missed my usual bus. 	(sleep)
33. A very old car is usually a(n) car. 	(rely)
34. These students voluntarily spent their summer vacations helping the  	(advantage)
35. Eating fish and lots of vegetables greatly increases your life 	(expect)
Your answers:
26. 
27. 
28. 
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
IV. Each sentence below has ONE mistake corresponding A, B, C or D. Find out and correct it. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2.0 points)
Example: Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule.
 A B C D
Answer: B ® is
36. The professor had already given the homework assignment when he had remembered that Monday 
	 A B C
 was a holiday.
 D
37. The price of crude oil used to be a great deal lower than now, wasn’t it?
 A	 B C	 D
38. It is extremely important for an engineer to know to use a computer.
 A B C	 D
39. The sun contains 99.9 percentage of the mass of the solar system. 
	 A 	 B	 C D	
40. In spite of the cold weather, we kept the fire burning all day. 
	A	 B 	 C	D
41. I’d rather he not do such things. 
	A B C D
42. The basic law of addition, subtraction, multiplication and division are taught to all elementary 
	 A B C
 school students.
 D
43. I really regret not to learn to play the piano when I had so many opportunities to learn and practise
 A B	 C	D
 in schools. 
44. If you choose to work in Nepal, you will find a well-establishing program for volunteers, 
	 A	 B	 C
 particularly in the capital Katmandu. 
	 D
45. We were all complete exhausted after our long journey.	
	 A B	 C	 D
Your answers:
36. 
37. 
38. 
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
V. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable preposition. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1,0 point).
46. Dishonesty is foreign  his nature. 
47. She was free to indulge  leisure activity like reading.
48. If we leave  the station at once, we arrive with ten minutes in hand.
49. Her bright red hair made her stand  from the others.
50. Is it OK if I write  pencil? 
Your answers: 
46. 
47. 
48. 
49.
50. 
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
	The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is the Internet, which has been (51) .. for losses, financial ruin and even suicide. Psychologists now recognize Internet Addiction Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could (52) .. serious problems and ruin many lives. Special help groups have been set up to (53) .. sufferers help and support. 
	Psychologists have described many (54) .. examples, including one man who took his own life after (55) .. more than $15,000 to feed his addiction, and a teenager who had to receive psychiatric treatment for his 12-hour-a-day (56) .. “This illness is not (57) .., and it must be taken seriously,” said an expert in behavioral addiction at Nottingham Trent University. These are not sad people with serious personality (58) ..; they are people who were fine before they found the Internet. 
	IAS is similar to other problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: addicts have dreamt about the Internet; they need to use it as the first thing in the morning; they (59) .. to their partners about how much time they spend online; they (60) .. they could cut down, but are unable to do so. A recent study found that many users spent up to 40 hours a week on the Internet; although they felt guilty, they became depressed if they were made to stop using it. 
51.	A. blamed 	B. faulted 	C. mistaken 	D. accused
52.	A. lend 	B. affect 	C. take 	D. cause
53.	A. offer 	B. suggest 	C. recommend 	D. advise
54.	A. worrying 	B. worried 	C. disappointing 	D. disappointed
55.	A. gaining 	B. lending 	C. winning 	D. borrowing 
56.	A. habit 	B. custom 	C. manner 	D. routine
57.	A. false 	B. imitation 	C. fake 	D. artificial 
58.	A. mistakes 	B. errors 	C. faults 	D. defects
59.	A. betray 	B. deceive 	C. chest 	D. lie
60.	A. want 	B. wish 	C. rather 	D. prefer
Your answers: 
51. 
52. 
53. 
54.
55. 
56.
57.
58.
59.
60. 
II. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the questions or to complete each sentence. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2.0 points)
Two fundamental rights in the US constitution are found in the fourteenth amendment: due process and equal protection.
The due process provision protects persons from being "deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law" and the provision goes on to give the steps that must be followed to make sure the process is "fundamentally fair." A process is considered to be fundamentally fair if there has been due notice, a hearing, an unbiased fact finder, the opportunity to present evidence and to cross examine witnesses, and the right of appeal.
 	Under the equal protection provision, no person may be denied equal protection under the laws. Equal protection does not prohibit all differences in the way people are treated, but it requires that these differences be reasonable. For cases involving the control of various businesses, and for ordinary cases, equal protection is fairly loose. However, when classifications such as race, religion, or national minorities are involved, then the equal protection is enforced much more strictly. This is also true when basic rights are involved: basic rights are voting, marriage, privacy, access to a court if one is needed, and travel between the states. In these cases, the right of the government to treat people differently under the law is extremely limited.
Due process and equal protection apply both to individuals and to businesses. Although businesses may seem to be different from individuals, the law generally treats a registered business as a person.
61. What is the subject of this passage?
      	A. civil liberties      	B. the due process
      	C. American basic rights       	D. equal protection
62. The word "amendment" in line 1 is closest in meaning to 
      	A. modification     	B. changeability   	C. mending   	D. variety
63. "Due process of law" signifies 
    	A. that nothing illegal has been done.      
B. that it is time for the law to be processed.
    	C. that the law has been properly applied.   
D. that no one has been deprived of their life or liberty.
64. For a process to be "fundamentally fair" there must have been 
      	A. a trial with a judge and jury.
      	B. an opportunity to present the evidence.
      	C. an opportunity to question the evidence which has been presented.
      	D. both B and C.
65. The word "unbiased" in line 6 is closest in meaning to 
      	A. unfair                	B. passionate          	C. unprejudiced       	D. uninterested
66. According to the text, you cannot suffer a legal penalty if 
      	A. you have not been informed that there is a case against you.
      	B. if you are to be deprived of your liberty.
      	C. if the case involves basic rights.
      	D. if you are not involved with marriage, voting, or minorities.
67. "Equal protection" means 
     	A. that the constitution has been amended.    
  	B. that businesses and people are treated the same.
      	C. that due process of law is sometimes amended.
      	D. that everybody is entitled to the same protection under the law.
68. Protection does not have to be exactly equal if 
      	A. nobody has complained to the court.      	
B. the cases do not involve sensitive issues.
      	C. the cases only involve business. 	
D. you are not traveling between the states.
69. In the eyes of the law, businesses are considered 
      	A. to be organized differently.      	
B. to be the same as people.
      	C. not to be involved in due process.      	
D. a part of the fourteenth amendment.
70. Where would you find this text?
      	A. a magazine article      	B. a mystery story
      	C. a book of American history 	D. a legal text book
Your answers: 
61. 
62. 
63. 
64.
65. 
66.
67.
68.
69.
70. 
IV. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
LEARNING BODY LANGUAGE
	Throughout history people have always communicated with one another not only by speech but also by movements of the hands and body. It is, however, only in the last few years that these aspects of communication (71)  been studied at all widely. This type of communication is (72)  as body language or non-verbal communication.
	People sometimes wonder (73)  you can learn how body language works. It is of course possible to read books on the subject but you also need to (74)  time observing people’s movements. A railway station is a particular good place for such observation as here people can (75)  seen openly by expressing eagerness, sorrow, delight, impatience and many other human emotions by means of movement.
	If you turn down the sound on your television set and try to understand (76)  is happening simply by watching a picture you will learn even more about communication (77)  words. By turning the sound back up every five minutes or so, it is possible to check (78)  accurate your understanding is.
	Having studied the art of body language, you will have (79)  definite advantage at a boring party. You will be able to sit on your own for the whole evening and thoroughly enjoy (80)  by both watching and interpreting the body language of all the other people there.
Your answers: 
71. 
72. 
73. 
74.
75. 
76.
77.
78.
79.
80. 
PART IV. WRITING. (4,0 POINTS) 
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (1.0 point)
81. I’m absolutely sure that they weren’t playing in this weather. 
They can’t
82. I think you should tell the police about the accident. 
If ...
83. The builder is going to mend my roof tomorrow. 
I .
84. I really like her voice but not her choice of songs. 
Much as .
85. They thought that he had stolen the diamond. 
The diamond .....
II. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meanings, using the words given. Remember not to make any changes to the words given. (1.0 point)
86. The best solution was thought of by Sally. 	 	came
87. He doesn’t appreciate his wife. 	granted 
88. Only final year students are allowed to use the main college car park. 	restricted
89. Joachim's composition was very inaccurate.	mistakes
90. It was easy for us to get tickets for the concert. 	difficulty
III. Write a paragraph of about 150 words about the disadvantages of using mobile phones among high school students. (2.0 points)
THE END OF THE TEST